-Rounding up of cells -karyorrhexis -pyknosis -retraction of pseudopodes -minor modifications of cytoplasmic organells -engulfment of residing phagocytes (in vivo) -plasma membrane blebbing
What is autophagy?
is a response to stress and results in the digestion of cellular substrates by lysosomes
What are morphological features of autophagy?
-lack of chromatin condensation -massive vacuolisation of the cytoplasma -accumulation of autophagic vacuoles -little to no uptake by phagocytic cells (in vivo)
What are morphological features of necrosis?
-rupture of cell membrane -swelling of cytoplasmic organells -moderate chromatin condensation -oncosis leads to necrosis with karyolysis
cell canibalism, which is often observed in tumour cells upon glucose starvation. One cell engulfs another live cell by invading into the cells cytoplasma leading to degradation
What is ferroptosis?
dependend on iron, ROS/lipid peroxidation and GPX4 inhibition. Accumulation of iron leads to excessive lipid peroxidation. The dysfunction of gluthathione peroxidase 4 (GPX4) prevents detoxification of ROS (reactive oxygen species). -neuro-degeneration
What is LMP-dependent cell death?
Based on lysosomal membrane permeabilisation. Is caused by a release of lysosomal enzymes (proteases) into cytoplasma due to disruption of lysosomal membrane. -neuro-degeneration
What are the two basic processes of cell proliferation?
cell growth and cell doubling/cell division
Why is cell proliferation important?
-development of tissues and organs -homeostasis of tissue and organs in adult organisms (replacement of dead cells by proliferation) -intestinal epithelia (all cells are renewed in about 1 week; fat cells about 10% per year) -regeneration of damaged tissue and organs e.g. wound healing, liver regeneration -enlargement of tissue and organs (fatty tissue) -strong amolification of certain cell types like immune cells -growth of tumours, cancer by deregulated cell proliferation
What is anchorage dependence?
cells often require physical contact with a substrate to be able to divide (inside a culture flask or extracellular matrix of a tissue)
achorage dependend cells: what is density-dependend inhibition?
cells form a single layer and dont proliferate anymore. If there is a gap in the monolayer, the cells divide to fill the gap and then stop again.
What are the cells surface proteins, which can bind ECM proteins, called ?
Integrins
What are integrins?
Integrins are cell surface proteins and are expressed on cells of the body. Integrins bind ECM proteins and therefore mediate adhesion of cells to the sorrounding ECM. They can activate the signaling pathways that can promote cell proliferation and supress apoptotic cell death upon binding to their ECM ligands (in combination with growth factors).
When are cells not sufficient for cell cycle progression?
when the cells are stimulated with growth factors without anchorage to the ECM.
What pathways can integrins activate?
Through integrins cell with anchorage to the ECM can activate the MEK/MAPK pathway for cell proliferation. The PI3K/Akt pathway for cell survival. And promotes cytoskeletal reorganization through activation of Rho family small GTPases.
What kinds of ECM are in our body?
-interstitial matrix that surrounds cells in the connective tissue -basement membrane that is a sheet-like ECM underlying epithelial cells
Which kind of ECM serves as the substrate for many cell types?
basement membrane
What is the function of the basement membrane?
Parenchymal cells in many organs including kidney, lungs, pancreas, liver, heart and blood vessels use the basement membrane as their adhesive substrate and recieve the signals that secure their function, prevent apoptosis and regulate their cell cycle progression through integrins on their cell surface.
What are CEMM?
CEMM are cholesteral-enriched membrane microdomains at the plasmamembrane.
What is the function of CEMM?
In adherent cells CEMM at the plasmamembrane allow correct activation and coupling of signaling molecules to their effectors such as Rac-PAK and PI3K-Akt), which results in cell survival and growth.
What happens wgen cells detach from the ECM?
Loss of adhesion leads to the shutdown of signaling pathways. After cell detachment from the ECM, integrin signaling is shutdown and CEMMs are internalized in a caveolin-1 (Cav1) - dependend manner, resulting in cell cycle arrest anf anoikis.
Which cells can grow anchorage independend? Why? What are their strategies?
-transformed cells -transformed cells employ different strategies to compensate for or circumvent, the anoikis signals and thus become anchorage independend -there are three strategies/patterns: 1. adapting to the new surroundings, either by epidermal-to mesenchymal transition (EMT) or by integrin switching, to avoid anoikis 2. counteracting negative signaling by hyperactivation of survival or mitogenic pathways 3. hiding and waiting by entering into a dormant state through either autophagy or entosis and then reactivating the cell cycle when conditions are favorable.
What is important to ensure the correct organisation, function and size of each organ/tissue?
the proliferation of adherent cells is dependend on growth factors and attachment to the appropriate ECM.
What is anoikis?
Detachment induced cell death. It is a self defense mechanism that prevents cell from leaving their natural niche and growing dysplastically and gas a determining role in preventing tumor cell dissemination and metastatic growth.
which cells want to escape anoikis? and what is the main consequence?why do this cells want to escape anoikis?
-tumor cells -loss of anchorage dependency - tumors release vast amounts of cells into vessels, but only achorage independend cells can grow and metastasie and therefore the cells want to avoid the mechanism.
What controls proliferation in multicellular organisms?
Proliferation in multicellular organisms is primarily controlled by signaling molecules (cell communication) and nutritiens (which are controlled by the mTor pathway.
What controls proliferation in unicellular organisms?
It is significantly stimulated by nutrients. They divide as quickl as possible when sufficient nutrients are present.
How can extracellular signaling molecules act?
in a paracrine, endocrine, autocrine manner and bind to specific receptors.
when occurs cell proliferation?
occurs only when specifically needed or when regulated by mitogens, growth factors and hormones.
how can cells respond to growth factors and mitogens?
through a wide variety of signal transduction pathways. Signaling transduction regulates a vatiety of coordinated biochemical processes like cell cycle, cell death, migration, differentation and growth(protein biosynthesis, cell metabolism)
When do cells stop dividing?
-until they come in contact with other cells and the signaling molecules are bound to one of the cells surfaces (juxtacrine) -or receive signals from neighbouring cells, which indicate that they should stop dividing. The signaling molecule is in this case released into the extracellular space (paracrine)
What are the phases of the cell cycle?
S, G2, M, G1/G0
What happens in the S phase of the cell cycle?
The synthesis of a cell. The cell replicates its DNA.
What happens in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
gap phase 2; Its the periode after DNA synthesis, but priot to the start if prophase. In this phase the cells continue to increase in size (growth) and the production of proteins and organells happens. The DNA gets checked for errors. The cells get prepared for the cell division.
What happens in the M phase of the cell cycle?
Mitosis/ cell division; Chromosomes in the nucleus are evenly divided between two cells. When the cell division process is completed, there are two identical daughter cells. Mitosis consists of Pro, meta, ana and telo-phase.
What happens in the G1 phase of the cell cycle?
gap phase 1; The peroid prior to sythesis of DNA. In this phase the cell increases in mass (growth), its preparing for DNA replication and produces proteins and organells. It checks for errors; cells, which are not intended to divide get to the G0 phase.
What happens in the G0 phase of the cell cycle?
cells, which are not intended to divide get to the G0 phase. This cells exit the cell cycle and are in a resting state. (dont divide). This can be temporary or terminal (differntiated cells).
Which enzymes control the cell cycle for the correct order?
a network of enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases (cdks). cdk must associate with a cyclin to be active. cyclin-cdk complexes trigger the expression of the next set of cyclins. S and M phase are controlled by reversible cdk phosophorylation. The activation of a checkpoint (e.g when there is DNA damage) inhibits the activity of cyclin-CDK complexes and prevents them from iniating next phase of cell cycle.
What does the checkpoint in G1phase do?
-G1 checkpoint: is the environment favorable? reqires sufficient size and nutrients and without a g0-ahead- signal, cells may enter G0. Also require growth factors to inactivate repressors and signals from neighbouring cells. If this checkpoint can be passed the cells enter the cell cycle and proceed the S-Phase.
what are the major checkpoints in the cell cycle?
G1(start checkpoint), S (DNA damage checkpoint), G2 checkpoint, M (metaphase to anaphase transition checkpoint)
What does the checkpoint in S phase do?
DNA damage checkpoint; requires DNA to be undamaged/repaired. When passing this checkpoint it goes to G2 phase.
What does the checkpoint in G2 phase do?
Is all DNA replicated? is the environment favorable? Requires replication to be completed to enter the M-phase/mitosis.
What does the checkpoint in M phase do?
Metaphase to anaphase transition check. Requires all chromosomes to be attached to spindle proteins. If passed it can trigger anaphase and proceed to cytokineses.
what happens when i cell does not pass the checkpoints in the cell cycle?
After the start in G1, when any checkpoint cant be passed the cell undergoes apoptosis
which specific cyclins trigger the start of the cell cycle?
The start is triggered by the activation of Cyclin D-cdk 4. Its levels imcrease theoughout G1 phase and when the concentration reaches a certain level, the activation of Cyclin E-cdk2 is triggered. It activates S-phase Cyclin A-cdk2, which initiates DNA replication.
What triggers the activation of cyclin D-cdk4?
Mitogens like EGF (trigger a signal transduction pathway) Mitogens bind to receptors that activate a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for the small gtp binding protein ras. Ras-gtp then activates a map kinase pathway that leads to the activation of a set of transcription factors including myc. Myc increases the transcription of cyclin D.
How does the Cell cycle start and cell division is triggered?
-Mitogens bind to receptors -> signaling pathway that leads to activation of cyclin d-cdk4 - cyclin d-cdk4 triggers activation of cyclin E-cdk2 - cyclin E-cdk2 triggers activation of cyclin A-cdk2 -cyclin A-cdk2 initiates DNA replication
How are the expression levels of cyclin and cdk while tje cell cycle?
cyclins are expressed in a wave like progression. cdk levels remain consistent, but cdk is only active when associated with a cyclin.
which cyclins ate expressed during the cell cycle?
G1 phase: cyclin E -> triggers start or entry into cell cycle S phase: cyclin A -> trigger DNA replication M phase: cyclin B -> initiate spindle assembly and attachment of microtubules to chromosome M phase: APC (anaphase promoting complex -> destroys all cyclines and initiates seperation of sister chromatids.
How does the activation of cyclin cdk work?
3 steps: -1. cyclin binds to the cyclin box of a cdk and activate cdks by partially opening a kinase pocket. -2. two phosphorelation processes: First one is mediated by cdk activating kinases (CAK). CAKs phosphorelate cdk leading to a complete opening of the substrate-binding site. The second is a inhibitory phosphrelation mediated by the kinase wee1. Wee1 adds inhibitory phosphates to the ATP binding pocket of cdk. This keeps the cdk in an inactive state. -3. is the removal of the inhibitory phosphate from cdk. Cdc25 removes the inhibitory phospate from cdk to activate cdk cyclin. This is the step at which checkpoints will often control progression into the next stage of the cell cycle.
The activation is also regulated by a pos. feedback. active cyclin-cdk phosphorylates cdc25 producing more active cdc25 and more active cyclin-cdk. active cyclin-cdk also inhibits wee1 preventing addition of the inhibitory phosphate.
why is the positive feedback loop of cyclin cdk activation important and necessary?
it commits the cell to each stage of the cell cycle.
Short: intrinsic pathway
in the intrinsic pathway, pro-apoptotic factors are released from the mitochondria, activating caspase signaling
short: extrinsic pathway
the extrinsic pathway requires the binding of extracellular apoptotic death ligands to their specific receptors at the plasma membrane.
Act the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway independently of each other?
The intrinsic and extrinsic pathway can flow independently until the last step of DNA degradation. However, they can also crosstalk at an earlier stage and act simultaneously
With what experiment can you answer: what is responsible for controlling a cells progress through the cell cycle?
Method: cells at two different stages are induced to fuse. In Experiment 1 we have a cell in the S phase and a cell in G1. One of the fused cells jumped to the others cells phase. G1 nucleus immidiately entered S phase and DNA was synthesized. In Experiment 2 we have a cell in M phase and a cell in G1 phase and again one of the fused cells jumped to the others cells phase and G1 nucleus began mitosis without chromosome duplication. Therefore, molecules present in the cytoplasm control the progression to S and M phase.
Explain the method for cell cycle studies with BrdU and EdU
BrdU incorporation assays to measure DNA synthesis. BrdU assays need the DNA to be denatured in order to allow an anti-BrdU primary antibody access to the BrdU molecule.
EdU assays rely on click chemistry. The fluorescent azide can freely bind to the ethynyl group of the EdU molecule. EdU is a tyhmidine analog that is incorporated into newly synthesized DNA. It labels proliferating and daugther cells and can be used to quantify the percentage of cells in G1, S and G2/M. And the DNA does not need to be denatured and can be uswd in co staining experiments.
Explain the method for cell cycle studies with CFSE staining
Analysis of proliferative capacity using CSFE staining. CSFE is a dys which diffuses into cells and then attaches to the amine group of cytoplasmoc proteins and is metabolized by cellular esterases to a fluorescence dye. When the cells are dividing, the dye is equally distributed to the daughter cells. Therefore, in daugther cells the dye is half as bright as in the mother cells. And so on. This can be analysed as peaks by FACS.
what is cell competition?
it is a key mechanism during development. Faster growing cells survive and slower growing cells die. Only the "fittest" cell contribuite to the final organ.
explain growth of a homotypic population
population of cells that are similiar, which dont compete with each other and grow
explain growth of a heterotypic population
population of cells consisting of different cell types leading to competition. The less fit cells are eliminated and in order to compensate the loss of this cells the sorrounding fitter cells are proliferating.
explain super-competition
Super competition means that super competitor cells eliminate their wild type neighbours and the super competitor cells are proliferating
what is a primary event in cell competition?
to identify the cells, which need to be eliminated after interacting with their neighbors.
how are oucompeted cells eliminated?
drosophila: apoptosis vertebrates: cell extrusion (cells are "pushed or expelled oit of a tissue)
why is cell competition important?
elimination of tumor cells, response to varoius environmental cues
in a mixed population of wild type cells and less fit cells, which one get eliminated and in a population of wild type and super competitor cells?
1. less fit get eliminated and the wild type replaces 2. wild type gets elimanted and super competitor cells replace (myc overexoression?
what are steps of cell competition?
1. recognition of winner/loser cells with cell cell interaction. Genes that are involved in the early stages are: flower, azot, xrp1 2. removal of loser cells apoptosis (upregulation of jnk pathway, ros production) or cell extrusion
what are competetive cell elimination modes
apoptotic induction of loser cell by winner cells, necroptosis, senescence, differentiation, mechanical extrusion, entosis, phagocytosis
how can the cells be replaced (cell competition)
-proliferation (in proliferation epithelial) -cell hypertrophy (in postmitotic tissue)
how is the removal and replacement within stem cell
adult tissues are mainzainef by asymmetric stem cell division. Loser lineages are eliminated by forced stem cell differentiation leading to cell lineage replacement. e.g mouse esophagus epithelium
what is myc driven cell competition?
In mouse embryonic epiblast at E6.5 constitute of heterotypic cell population with different levels of c-myc expression. The relatively lower myc expressing cells are outcompeted by neighboring cells with higher myc expression and are gradually removed as embryonic development progresses.
explain size control in cell competition
Cells with a growth advantage to wild type cells induce the expression of a pro apoptotic gene and eventually their death. Due to the elimination of cells through apoptosis normal and uniform organ size is reached at the end lf development. when apoptosis is blocked by genetic elimination of pro apoptotic gene function or ubiquitous expression of p53, wild type cells populate portions of the organ. But a wide variation of final organ sizes is observed.
cell competition- tissue homeostasis
when rapidly proliferating cells are transplanted into the damaged adult liver, these cells contribute to the regenerative response by their increased proliferation and inducing the apoptosis of the wilde type host liver cells.
what role does cell competition have after a traumatic injury?
during tissue repair after an injury, damaged cells die immediately. But damaged viable cells are eliminated by cell competition with healthier cells. Without cell competition from repairing cells, tissue repair is incomplete
what is the physiological role of cell competition?
what is the role of tumor supression in cell competition?
cell competition can help removing cells with mutations that are potentially oncogenic. therefore, cell comp. behaves as a tumor supressing mechanism when alterations in apico basal polarity appear in isolated cells. wild type vells eliminate mutant cells in a process termned EDAC
why are animal models not effective in drug development?
-ethical -cost -time -poor predictors of human response (11% of drugs came out as approved products; 50 drugs save for animals, only 1 approves safe in humans better are: in vitro models using human cells/tissues
explain human on a chip
goal: integration of organs on a chip to form a body on a chip why: predict in pre clinical studies hoe humans will respond to drugs or chemicals how: experimental device guided by physiologically based pharmacokinetic model
what is pbpk?
physiologically based pharmacokinetic. computer models treat the human body as a series of interconnected compartments. Such compartments are reactors, absorbers or holding tanks.
what is a major challenge for safety prediction?
-compex in nature, develops over longer time -often displays species dependency -involves multitude of factors and different cell types -difficult to address in vitro
drug safety: where do assays currently drive?
1. target selection and hit identification 2. lead identification and optimisation. run early safety tests to allow candidate selection 3. preclinical development. de-risk preclinical in vivo findings, address human relevance 4. clinical development. support mode of action identification of clinical flags
how can in vitro predictions improved?
-apply molecular tools to in vitro tests (pattern approach: capture multiple/ all genes, proteins,..) -> omics, high content imaging -combine existing in vitro assays (targeted approach: combination of specific assay data) -> integrated safety score -improve cell models (holistic approach: models displaying in vivo like functionality over prolonged time) -> mps
what are advanced liver cell models?
-2D micropatterned Co cultures (longterm incubation increases predictivity for dili) -3D transwell co cultures (different cell types contributing to toxic effect) -3D spheroids (high complexity in semi ht format) -3D bioprinted (large tissue allows assessment of morphological changes)
what are advantages of 3D cell cultures techniques?
reproducability and co culture ability (spheroids, scaffolds), in vivo like complexity and architecture (organoids), in vivo like architecture (organ on a chip), high throughput production (3d bioprinting)
what are disadvantages of 3d culture techniques?
simplified architecture (spheroids, scaffolds), lack vascularity and difficult to adapt to hts (organoids, organ on a chip, 3d bioprinting)
what would happen if cyclin-cdk is activated without a pos. feedback loop?
amount of cdk is consistent throughout the cell cycle, but the amount of a specific cyclin increases before most stages of the cell cycle. In the absence of a pos. feedback, this increase of cyclin would lead to a linear increase in the amount of active cyclin cdk. This is unfavorable because events in one stage of the cell cycle would start at different times due to some event need more active cyclin cdks. And because, the activity of cyclin cdk is reversible. If the signal for the expression is removed, the amount of cyclin cdk would decrease leading to less active cyclin cdk.
when is cyclin expressed?
the expression of cyclin starts before the next stage of the cell cycle. The cell build up a large concentration of inactive cyclin cdk before the next stage. When its ready for the next stage, it activates cdc25. Due to the pos. feedback the inital signal is not needed, because it can maintain its own activity through pos. feedback. Therefore it avoids the limitations by producing a switch like activation of cyclin cdk.
what is the disadvantage of pos. feedback?
cyclin cdk cant be turned off by simply removing the signal thag triggered the expression
how does the degradation of of cyclin cdk work?
to inactivate cyclin cdk cells target cyclins for destruction by ubiquitylation and then digestion via the proteosome.
What is the consequence of mutation in myc, ras or the receptor?
Because the receptor, myc and ras regulate the expression of cyclin D, mutation can lead to uncontrolled cell division. Therfore, receptor, ras and myc are oncogenes.
What are the transcription factors for cyclin E acitvation?
cyclin D cdk 4 increases the transcirption of cyclin E with the transcription factors E2F1, E2F2 and E2F3. These are activators. But there are also inhibitors for the cyclin E transcription. E2F4 and E2F5.
how does the pos.feedback of cyclin d-cdk2??? work?
Cyclin D-cdk4 phosphorylate pRb. This leads to transcription of cyclin E and formation formation of cyclin E-cdk2. cyclin E-cdk2 also phosphorylates pRb leading to more transcription of cyclin E. Once activated cyclin E-cdk2 can maintain its own activity and becomes independent of the mitogen.
what is pRb and what is its role in the cell cycle?
Retinoblastoma protein is a tumor supressor gene. It controls the interacton of E2F proteins and cyclin E (g1-s). It can control E2Fs activity by binding to it and preventing transcription.
When pRb is bound to E2F1-3, the transcription factors are inactive. cyclin d-cdk2 triggers cyclin E transcription by phosphorylating pRb. When phosphorylated, pRb releases E2F1-3. When E2F1-3 are free from pRb, they bind to the enhancer of cyclin E to increase its transcription. This promotes expression of cycl E, which activates CDK2 driving the cell into the s-phase.
However, when E2F4-5 are bound to pRb, they help repress cyclin E transcription. When phosphorylated, pRb releases E2F4-5, but they dont bind the repressor of cyclin E. Therefore, they cant supress its transcription anymore.
pRb is in its active form when bound to E2Fs and prevents the transcription, which means that it inhibits cell division. (tumor supressor)
what are anti-mitogens?
anti mitogens antagonize mitogens by targeting the same cell cycle regulators. (e.g TGF-b)
TGF-b inhibits cell cycle progression by induction of the cdk p15ink4B and also p21cip1 in g1 phase
What are CDKIs?
cyclin dependent kinases inhibitors. The cell cycle progression is neg. controlled by CDKIs. They are mostly involved in cell cycle arrest in G1.
what is p27?
p27 is a CDKI protein, which inhibits cyclin dependent kinases.
what classes of cdkis have been described?
two classes. 1. includes ink4 proteins (inhibitors of cdk4) 2. Cip/Kip
what are examples for ink4 proteins?
p16 Ink4a (CDKI2A/ CDKN2A), p15 Ink4b (CDKN2B), p18 Ink4c (CDKN2C) and p19 Ink4d (CDKN2D). Ink4 proteins specifically bind to and inhibit monomeric cdk4 and cdk6 proteins.
what are Cip/Kip proteins?
CDK interacting proteins. Bind to cyclin cdk complexes. Inhibit cdk activity by forming inactive trimeric complexes (cyclin E-cdk2, cyclin A cdk2, cyclin A cdc2, cyclin B cdc2). There are 3 members: p21 Clip1 (CDKN1A), p27 Kip1 (CDKN1B), p57 Kip 2 (CDKN1C)
explain: Anti mitogens for cyclind d cdk4
anti-mitogens like TGF-b inhibit the cell cycle by preventing cyclin D from binding Cdk4. anti-mitogens bind to the receptor that phosphorylates a protein called Smad.Smad dissociates from the receptor and binds Smad4. The complex then enters the nucleus and increases the expression of a protein called ink4. ink4 binds cdk4 and physically prevents it from binding cyclin d. Therefore, cyclin E is not expressed the the cell doeas not enter start.
DNA damage and cdc25
dna damage triggers arrest of cell cycle by reducing the amount of cdc25. dna damage kinases phosphorylate cdc25 that exposes a degradation motif and then cdc25 is ubiquitylated and digested by the proteosome.
what is p53?
p52 is a specific transcription factor for cells that inhibit cell cycle and promote apoptosis. It is also a tumor supressor gene because it prevents cells from becoming cancerous.
DNA damage and p53
dna damage leads to activation of p53. Most p53 is associated with another protein called mdm2. mdm2 prevents p53 from entering the nucleus to activate gene expression and it leads to uniquitylation of p53 and digestion of p53 by the proteosome. dna damage is recognised by kinases ATM/ATR and Chk1/Chk2. these kinaaes phosphorylate mdm2, which causes it to dissociate from p53. released from mdmd, p53 can enter the nucleus where it activates the transcription of genes which encode proteins that arrest the cell cycle. one of those proteins is p21, which binds cyclincdk complexes such as e-cdk2.
Cell cycle arrest and mitogenic signals
strong mitogenic signals (oncogenic stress) inhibit entering the cell cycle/ cycling of normal cells or induce apoptosis
what is the consequence of improper chromosome segregation?
Tumorigenisis, developmental diseases like down syndrome
specific to a cell type. Often/usually required for progress past g1 for inactivating repressors of cdks. e.g NGF, EGF, MGF
what are RTKs?
receptor tyrosine kinases. Many mitogen and growth factors are RTKs. Activation of RTKs by dimerization and autophosphorylation.
what happens with the centrosome in the m phase?
the centrosome gets doubled in s phase and migrates during prophase to the spindle poles.
what is the mitotic spindle?
To segregate the chromosomes accurately (in anaphase). it is build during metaphase and contains 3 types of microtubules.
1. astral MT (from centrosome to cell membrane) 2. interpolar MT (towards the center of the cell and overlapp with:) 3.interloper/ kinetochore MT (coming from the opposite centrosome; attach to the chromosome and generate the force to seperate the chromosomes)
how can cells prevent premature seperation?
by wrapping them in a protein complex that contains cohesins. cohesins prevent chromosome seperation even if the chromosome is attacht to MT. Allow cell to only seperate until all chromosomes are attached.
how do cells iniate seperation?
by activating APC (anaphase promoting complex). APC is the equivalent of E2 and E3 ligases and target specific proteins for degradation including cyclin B and securin through ubiquitylation. The loss if cyclin B reduced cdk2 activity and the destruction of securin triggers seperation of the chromosomes. Securin is a complex wirh seperase and when it is released from securin, seperase becomes active. It digest the cohesin complex and once freed from cohesin, the mitotic spindle generates force to pull the chromosomes to the opposite side.
How can APC be activated?
Apc is inactive until all chromosomes are attached to the MT. Active APC requires cdc20. cdc20 interacts with proteins in the kinetochore of unattached chromosomes and is kept inactive. when all chromosomes are attached cdc20 can no longer interact and is now able to bind APC and trigger APC activation.
what is also formed during anaphase?
contractile ring (actin and myosin ring) underneath the plasma membrane. Rho signaling is activated triggering the initiation, contraction and membrane incorporation.
What is characteristic for cancer cells?
abnormal growth of cells. They divide rapidly, dont adhere to normal cell cycle regulation and often break through tissue boundaries to invade distant tissue(metastasis). unusual nr of chromosomes, dna methylation and histine modifications are abnormal. Unusual miRna activity, metabolism is altered, stimulate angiogenesis
what are proto oncogenes?
genes involved in stimulating normal cell cycle
what are onco genes?
proto oncogene that has mutations that make the protein either hyperactive or independently active. contribute to the development of cancer.
what is the consequence of mutations in genes that are involved in the cell cycle?
-allow cells to avoid apoptosis - allow damaged dna to be passes on -allow cells to divide indefinitly
normal cells vs transformed cells
normal cells have low passaging value, because they lose ability to divide after some time due to cellular ageing. Transformed cells have high passaging value, because they have the ability to continuously divide.
what is the hayflick limitation?
cultured normal cells have limited capacity to divide and after become senescent.
what is senescence?
irreversible cell cycle arrest mechanism that acts to protect against cancer. But also for development, tissue repair and ageing. It is indiced by stress inducing factors like internal damaging events, oxidative stress, autphagy factors,..
what is the cause of ageing?
telomere shortening. Telomeres are repetetive dna sequences and protect dna by acting as caps. Telomeres are at the end of the chromosome and when cells undergo cell division the telomere length gets shorter. At some point cell no longer divide.
of what is telomerase composed?
RNA and protein
what is transformation?
conversation of normal cells to cancerous cells e.g proto oncogene to oncogene
how does transformation work in colorectal area?
-loss of tumor supressor genes -change of cell surface proteins to avoid immune detection -loss of cell-cell adhesion -loss of anchorage dependence -loss of density inhibition -loss of Dna repair proteins e.g BRCA1 and BRCA2
what are treatments for cancer?
-chemotherapie -radiation therapie
What is chemotherapie?
uses chemicals to stop the cell cycle. Kills cancer cell bit also normal cells that rapidly divide like hair, intestine or blood cells
what is radiation therapie?
affecrs cancer cells mor than normal cells because of cancers loss od dna repair mechanisms.
what is impedance spectroscopy?
analytical technique to measure cell size and other quantitative charakteristics. An electrical platform requires no need to label them (label free)
what is a sensogram?
representation of real time biological interactions. Often used in Impedance Spectroscopy.
what role does cell competition have in ageing?
younger cells have less mutations. suboptimal or damaged cells are detected and eliminated. During aging cells are more prone to mutations. The tissue could be mainly populated by suboptimal cells and de comparison between winner and loser cells becomes less efficient resulting in no elimination OR including AD and transplant of stem cells CC is still efficient in elderly and promotes healthier ageing.
what role does cell competition have in stem cells?
maintenance of stem cell populations by division asymmetry or population asymmetry. normal: lost and replaced in neutral competition. loss and replacement are balanced to maintain a stable stem cell population and no stem cell has advantage over another.
however, with mutations it leads to non-neutral competition. Stem cells with a advantage over non-mutant stem cells are kept and the other is driven out.
what is important for 3d advanced cell models?
Unspecific drug binding, key functions of organ to be represented in vitro, stability over time, gain in predictability vs prive for complexity
what are challenges of in vitro system and safety prediction?
in vitro concentration and clinical exposure, drug related factors vs patient ralted factors, acute effects vs rare clinical events
aims for drug safety models?
replacing animal studies, adding even more stringent filters early on for established areas, use mps/organ on a chip
what is organ on a chip and mps?
is a microfluid device that mimics the structure and function of a human organ on a small chip.
what are opportunies of organ on a chip and mps?
-combine diseases-pharmacology and safety in vitro -support internal decision making -reduce animal testing -support entry into humans -more personalized
what are challenges of organ on a chip and mps?
-in vitro - in vibo translation -sourcing of animal and human cells -price vs complexity
what advanced tissue model are chosen for toxicity?
liver, cardiac, neuro
what advanced tissue model are chosen for barrier system?
kidney, gut, vascular, retina
what advanced tissue model are chosen for connecting organ systems?
liver+liver-kidney, liver-gut, endothel-cardiac
what is body on a chip?
advanced microfluid system that integrated multiple organ on a chip models. e.g organ volume rates translate into ratios of microfluidic chamber vomumes.
what is PBPK?
physiologically based pharmacokinetic modeling is a computational approach used to predict how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized and excreted in the human body.
what are design criteria to emulate pbpk?
realistic ratio of cell mass in one organ to another, mimic flow split of blood during recirculation, physiological shear rates
what are microfluidics?
deal with the behavior and the manipulation of fluids (gases and liquids) on small length scales, typically, the submillimeter range.
Almost all of the test wirh uF devices show high non specific binding. Needs to be overcome.
what is rapid prototyping?
refers to fast fabrication and testing of microfluidic devices, biosensors,.. for biomedical applications.
what is a micro cell culture system?
is a miniaturized controlled environment designed to grow and study cells on a microscale. Often using a microfluidic technology. Mimic natural physiological conditions of tissue and organs. The medium is recirculated to mimic the bodys recirculation.
what is the path to develope a new drug?
1. exhaustive testing in test tubes or petri dishes (in vitro) 2. then in organisms (in vivo). Therefore, animals like mice, rabbits or monkeys are experimented on. 3. then tested on humans