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I have need new ideas for my start a my new business
How to set a theory and. Model
Dear fellow students, may I ask you to support me in order to fill out a survey that won't take much longer than 1 minute. It is basically about P2P in order of a Startup Event in Germany. We are collecting data from students for our final pitch. You can find the survey right here: https://joshua158.typeform.com/to/SwjCm8 Thank you so much, Simon
Other complains???
Any complaints?
file uploaded
Could someone explain?
just apply the wacc formula and solve for rD or plug in the different answer possibilities
Could someone explains question 57 answer is 40%
w=SD(Bollie)/(SD(Bollie)+SD(Billie))=40%
The clean price of a bond is NOT adjusted for accrued interest. The DIRTY price of a bond is the price including any interest accrued. So B is also false
How do you solve this?
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What is the formula?
the formul is: CPN/y*(1-1/(1+y)^N)+FV/(1+y)^N
How?
This should work
how do you solve this?
Total return = ((Div1 + P1)/P0) -1 = ((10+70)/50) -1 = 0,6
How is this done?
100000/0.03-0.01
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how do you do 45?
How do you solve this?
Profit margin= net income / sales and you know that profit margin is 4.1% and sales are 747 000, so you solve for net income = 306270. Then you do price-earnings ratio: 27*7500/ 306270 =6.61
Question 45 (1st sit 2018 VS) How do you calculate the coverage ratio of 1.0?
Coverage = Assets/PV Liabilities = 50/(1/0.03-0.01) = 1
How do you solve this?
How do you calculate question 31 in the first sit version F?
How do you solve this?
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It´s probably not the easiest way but it works: Lets take a 100$ investment as an example. Then you plug it through each year so: 100x0.95x1.02x1.03x0.94x1.04. Then you get 97.57 divided by 100 and then -1 equals to around 2.5 %
You have to do [(1+r)*(1+r1)...]-1 SO: [(1-0.05)*(1.02)...]-1=2.4
Could someone help me?
-5000 + 4000/1.1 + 5000/1.1^2 + 6000/1.1^3 + 7000/1.1^4= 12.... and then devide it by the initial 5000= 2.41=B
How do you do this?? Thanks a lot !!!
If you just do an example of a 100$ bond: 100/1.05=95.24 100/1.06=94.34 95.24/94.34= 1.00953-1=0.009 which is almost 1% and since the price is decreasing it has to be negative
Why is it B?
How do you solve this?
300+125-150-20 = 255
How do you solve for these questions?
17: 10,000 x 1/0.02 x (1-1/1.02^20)= 163,514 18: 40,000 x 1/4 x 1/0.03 x ((1.03)^35-1)= 604,620
How do you solve this?
51480.79 / 1.0425^26 = 17,444.86
Question 15 (1st sit 2018 VS) Help...?
(10 000 000/0.12-0.04)*(1-(1.04/1.12)^17)=89 537 414...about 90 million
Question 7 (1st sit 2018 VS) How do you get the P/E = 6.61?
P/E ratio = market value per share / ernings per share Market value per share = $27 earnings per share = (($747,000 x 0.041) / 7500) P/E ratio = ($27 / (($747,000 x 0.041) / 7500) ) = 6.6118.....
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are q 8 and 9 correct?
Dear everyone out there: question 12 (sit 1 2018) - giving version U: Answer D is "not" wrong - semi-annual compounding for 30 years computes to 4.459,86, thus it is correct that the savings exceed EUR 4.450, is`n it? Or am I wrong?
have got the answer: formualr is (1+0,05/2)'2*30
hi, what means P on the result please?
It means Passed. If you click on it you can see your grade :)
Any ideas of complaints ??? Do you know how many bonus points did he give last year ??
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come on.... how can NPV of zero bring benefit
An NPV of 0 brings neither a profit nor a loss. The investor is indifferent about whether to invest but it does *not* bring a profit.
When will the answer key be out?
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Now!
But the website lags so much..
How to solve this?
Answer is C. Formula is: (Market Value)/(Book Value). MV is share price (12) * shares outstanding (13). BV is Shareholder's Equity (70). So (12*13)/70 = 2.22857.... closest to 2.23. C
Enterprise value is marketcap - cash + debt (you forgot the - cash)
thanks ! :)
why the amswe is c? the expected return of market is 13% and picky's is 18%,, so it is undervalued
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Why do you include the 18% in your calculations for the CAPM??? I did 5% + 1.8*(8%-5%) which is below 18% and concluded then it is undervalued... apparently I was wrong but i have no clue why :/
8% is risk premium market expected return=risk premium+risk free=13% 5%+1.8*(13%-5%)=194%, however,the market portfolio=18% therefore, Picky is overvalued
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question 45, someone?
plug in all data eq. 12.12 from Ch12, solve for rD
Can someone explain how we get 6.25 ?
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that is also my issue with this! Does someone know about the number of complaints for this exam?
yes, questions with bonus points (due to complaints/print errors) were: 16, 20, 22, 27, 33, 38 and 59
S + P= PV (K) + C
The value of a call option increases (decreases) as the stock price *Increases (decreases), all other things held constant.
who can help me for question 19 please?
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No problem :) If I use your initial formula and discount 40 by 4 years, I get the right answer from the answer sheet which is 396. So basically, this means that the answer sheet is wrong, right?
yes the answer sheet is messed up but there is new version under exam materials so you can also check your mistakes if you have any more.
Could someone explain the reasoning behind ? Thanks
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how do you calculate the SD and everything in this case?? someone know it?
The sd formula is on the formula sheet the alpha is not given unless stated and the beta is also on the formula sheet if that is what you are asking for.
how can we solve this ?
could somebody show the calculation for the standard deviation of p? I get to 10.4%
In the book it says that the efficient portfolio has the highest sharpe ratio. Can somebody explain why a is false/ the correct answer?
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Q54: Why is C wrong and A right? 0,5*0,12+0,5*0,08=0,1 so SD is exact 10% not smaller.
Q21 - Who knows how to solve this?
Hi! Where do you get this formula from? The formula for Beta (stock) on the formula sheet is quite different?
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question 56??
WHY D IS NOT CORRECT?
Having a beta of 1 implies that the portfolio or stock moves along with the market. It does not mean that it contains the same stocks as the market portfolio. For example, Alphabet (mother company of Google) has a beta very close to 1.
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question 45 please?
Answer C is correct, because -1 is the lowerbound of the correlation of the returns of two stocks. This means that their return is always moving into opposite directions (Return (1): Increase, Return(2): Decrease). We want to achieve a correlation of -1 because it enables us to diversify away the volatility (risk) of the stocks. This results in a stable returns.
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